Permission is granted by the Department of Transport, Canada, to copy and/or reproduce the contents of this publication in whole or in part provided that full acknowledgment is given to the Department of Transport, Canada, and that the material be accurately reproduced. While use of this material has been authorized, the Department of Transport, Canada, shall not be responsible for the manner in which the information is presented, nor for any interpretations thereof.
The information in this publication is to be considered solely as a guide and should not be quoted as or considered to be a legal authority. It may become obsolete in whole or in part at any time without notice.
ISBN: 978-1-100-14968-4
Catalogue No. T52-4/38-5-2016E-PDF
TP 13723E
(03/2021)
This flight test guide sets out the techniques, procedures and the marking criteria that will be used by Civil Aviation Inspectors and delegated Pilot Examiners for the conduct of the flight test required to demonstrate the skill requirements for the issuance of the Private Pilot Licence - Aeroplane.
Flight Instructors are expected to use this guide when preparing candidates for flight tests. Candidates should be familiar with this guide and refer to the qualification standards during their training.
Detailed descriptions and explanations of the flight test exercises as numbered on the flight test report can be found by referring to the corresponding chapter number in the Flight Training Manual and the Flight Instructor Guide published under the authority of Transport Canada.
Compliance with this flight test guide will meet the requirements of CAR Standard 428 – Schedule 3 of the Personnel Licensing and Training Standards , respecting the Conduct of Flight Tests.
‘examiner’ means a Pilot Examiner accredited under section 4.3 of Part 1 of the Aeronautics Act or a Civil Aviation Inspector authorized to conduct this flight test.
‘flight test item’ means a task, manoeuvre or exercise listed on the flight test report.
‘ground items’ are the planning and preparatory tasks performed prior to the pre-flight inspection of the aircraft.
‘air items’ are tasks or manoeuvres performed with the aircraft, including the pre-flight inspection, start-up, run-up, taxiing and emergency procedures.
‘proficiency’ means having a high degree of competence or skill; expertise; being prepared to handle any situation with which you might reasonably be presented during a flight.
‘soft-field’ means a grass, unpaved, improvised, soft or rough take-off or landing surface that may present variable rolling resistance or may present a risk of damage to the landing gear, if soft-field technique is not used when operating on soft or rough surfaces.
Aussi disponible en français.
SGDDI No. 17094151-v2
On the correct final approach flight path:
Note: If stability is not established by 200 feet AGL , an overshoot will be executed.
In order to be admitted to a flight test required for the issuance of a Private Pilot Licence – Aeroplane, or a complete re-test , and meet the requirements of CAR 421.14, the candidate will present:
A partial flight test must be conducted within 30 days after the date of the failed test [408.18(2)]. Prior to admission to a partial flight test, the candidate will provide the requirements of (a), (b) and (c) above, and:
Letters of recommendation must be signed and dated by the holder of a valid Flight Instructor Rating within 30 days prior to the flight test. In the case of a candidate recommended by the holder of a Class 4 flight instructor rating; the letter must be co-signed by the supervising instructor. In the case of a partial or complete retest, the person who conducted the additional training will sign the letter of recommendation.
The candidate will provide:
Pilot examiners will not accept a verbal statement from candidates indicating liability insurance coverage has been arranged. The candidate must provide proof of insurance indicating that the examiner is covered prior to the conduct of the flight test.
All of the flight test items required by the flight test report and described in this guide must be completed and the minimum pass mark for the Private Pilot Licence of 62 (50%) must be achieved.
Candidates should action and complete the published “Performance Criteria” of each flight test item or exercise.
All flight tests will be conducted when weather conditions do not present a hazard to the operation of the aeroplane, the aeroplane is airworthy and the candidate and aircraft’s documents, as required by the Canadian Aviation Regulations , are valid. It is the sole responsibility of the examiner to make the final decision as to whether or not any portion or the entire flight test may be conducted.
Items 2A, 2B, 2C and 23A are ground flight test items and will be assessed before the flight portion of the flight test.
An informal language proficiency assessment will be carried out by the examiner during the questioning and evaluation of the ground portion of the flight test. An “Expert” or “Operational” assessment must be demonstrated to continue the flight test. In instances where a candidate is unable to demonstrate an operational level of language proficiency at the time of the flight test, the PE will assess the ground part of the flight test as a failure and will not conduct the air part of the flight test;
Note: The PE will assign a mark of “1” for the exercise “Documents and Airworthiness” and explain the situation in the “Remarks” section. Reference should be made to Advisory Circular 401-009 - The Conduct of Aviation Language Proficiency Demonstrations.
A flight test item or manoeuvre will not be repeated unless one of the following conditions applies:
Note: These provisions have been made in the interest of fairness and safety and do not mean that instruction, practice, or the repeating of an item or manoeuvre, that was unacceptably demonstrated, is permitted during the flight test evaluation process.
If the test is not completed due to circumstances beyond the candidate’s control, the subsequent flight test will include the flight test items not completed on the original flight test and will be completed within the 30 days of the original letter of recommendation. (Refer to Section 5.16 of the Pilot Examiner Manual)
The following process will apply:
If the initial flight test included one or two failed air items, the partial flight test for these may be conducted during the subsequent flight test flight, after the candidate has completed all of the required items, provided:
Failure to obtain the minimum pass mark or the failure of any flight test item constitutes failure of the flight test. The failure of any ground item requires a complete re-test and precludes the air portion of the flight test. Ground items are not eligible for a partial flight test. The failure of one or two air items will require a partial flight test on those items, and the failure of a third air item will require a complete re-test. More than five (5) combined flight test items assessed as either “1” and/or “2” constitutes failure of the flight test and will require a complete re-test.
The examiner will stop a test, assess it “1”, and a complete re-test will be required if the candidate jeopardizes safety by:
Following a failed flight test that qualifies for a partial re-test , the candidate will obtain a copy of the flight test report to meet the requirements for admission to a partial flight test.
If not satisfied with the outcome of the flight test, a candidate may wish to file a written complaint regarding the conduct of a flight test or the performance of an examiner with the Transport Canada Regional Office responsible for that pilot examiner. In order to succeed with a complaint, the applicant will have to satisfy Transport Canada that the test was not properly conducted. Mere dissatisfaction with the flight test result is not enough. After due consideration of the individual case, the regional Technical Team Lead responsible for Flight Training may authorize a re-test to be conducted, without prejudice (with a clean record in regard to the disputed flight test), by a Civil Aviation Inspector or alternate pilot examiner.
Provided that the applicable pass mark has been achieved, there are no more than two failed air flight test items and there are no more than five (5) combined exercises assessed either a “1” and/or “2”, the skill requirement for licence issue may be met by completing a partial flight test of the item or items assessed “1”. A Letter of Recommendation for Retest must be signed by the holder of a valid Flight Instructor Rating who conducted the remedial training.
The candidate will be required to successfully perform the air item(s) assessed as “1” on the complete flight test. Flight test items not associated with the items(s) to be retested, but repeated for the purpose of the second flight, may be re-assessed as “1” if their aim is not achieved or safety is compromised.
The partial flight test must be completed within 30 days after the date of the failed test [408.18(2)]. No more than one partial flight test will be allowed for each complete flight test.
For a partial flight test, and at the discretion of the examiner, a Level 3, 5 or 6 flight training device approved in accordance with CAR 606.03, Synthetic Flight Training Equipment that reproduces the aeroplane type used for the failed flight test may be used to re-test Exercise 29, Emergency Procedures.
Note: Certified FSTDs meeting the requirements of Revision 2 or Revision 3 of the Aeroplane and Rotorcraft Simulator Manual may be used for pilot testing.
A complete re-test will be required in the following situations:
Note: In the case of a complete re-test , the candidate should not show or submit a copy of the previously failed flight test report to the examiner.
Examiners are required to brief test candidates on the following details:
Note: The practice of closing fuel valves, shutting off magneto switches or pulling of circuit breakers will not be used during a flight test.
Flight management refers to the effective use of all available resources, including working with such groups as dispatchers, other crewmembers, maintenance personnel, and air traffic controllers. Poor performance of an exercise or task can often be explained by weaknesses in flight management competencies.
The candidate’s airmanship will be assessed along with other factors in determining the mark awarded for each item. Items such as looking out for other aircraft, use of checklists, consideration for other aircraft on the ground and in the air, choice of run-up areas, choice of runways and clearing the engine during prolonged glides will be assessed. The candidate will be expected to demonstrate good airmanship and complete accurate checks on a continuing basis and demonstrate the smooth and coordinated use of flight and power controls.
Error: means an action or inaction by the flight crew that leads to a variance from operational or flight crew intentions or expectations.
A minor error is an action or inaction that is inconsequential to the completion of a task, procedure or manoeuvre, even if certain elements of the performance vary from the recommended best practices.
A major error is an action or inaction that can lead to an undesired aircraft state or a reduced safety margin, if improperly managed; or an error that does not lead to a safety risk, but detracts measurably from the successful achievement of the defined aim of a sequence/item:
A critical error is an action, inaction that is mismanaged and consequently leads to an undesired aircraft state or compromises safety such as:
Deviation: means a variance in precision with respect to a specified limit published for a test sequence/item, as a result of pilot error or faulty handing of the aircraft.
A minor deviation is a deviation that does not exceed a specified limit:
A major deviation is a deviation that exceeds a specified limit or repeated minor deviations without achieving stability:
A critical deviation is a major deviation that is repeated, excessive or not corrected, such as:
When applying the 4-point scale, award the mark that best describes the weakest element(s) applicable to the candidate’s performance of the particular test sequence/item demonstrated.
4
Performance is well executed considering existing conditions:
3
Performance is observed to include minor errors:
2
Performance is observed to include major errors:
1
Performance is observed to include critical errors or the Aim (objective) of the test sequence/item is not achieved:
The Privacy Act protects the privacy of individuals with respect to personal information about themselves held by a government institution. A flight test measures the performance of the candidate for the flight test, the examiner conducting the flight test, the instructor who recommended the candidate and, through identification of the Flight Training Unit responsible for the training, the performance of the Chief Flight Instructor of that unit. All of these are identified on the flight test report.
Personal information may be disclosed in accordance with Section 8(2)(a) of the Act, which allows disclosure…” for the purpose for which the information was obtained or compiled by the institution or for a use consistent with that purpose”. The purpose for which flight test information is obtained is to ensure the safety of aviation in Canada. The specific purposes are to measure whether the candidate meets the minimum skill standard for the licence or rating, whether the recommending instructor is performing competently as an instructor, whether the examiner is conducting the test in accordance with the standards, and whether the Flight Training Unit is performing in accordance with the general conditions of the operator certificate.
In accordance with 8(2)(a) of the Privacy Act , a copy of the flight test report will be given to the candidate for a flight test and a copy will be retained by the examiner who conducted the flight test. A copy may also be given to the instructor who recommended the candidate for the flight test and to the Chief Flight Instructor responsible for the quality of flight training at the Flight Training Unit where the training was conducted. Specific information about the results of a flight test will not be given by Transport Canada to anyone but the individuals named on the flight test report, except in accordance with the Privacy Act .
The “Performance Criteria” section of each flight test item prescribes the marking criteria. These criteria assume no unusual circumstances as well as operation of the aeroplane in accordance with the manufacturer’s specifications, recommended speeds and configurations in the Pilot’s Operating Handbook/Aircraft Flight Manual ( POH / AFM ) or other approved data.
Candidates should action and complete the published “Performance Criteria” of each flight test item or exercise.
Throughout the flight test, the candidate is evaluated on the use of an appropriate checklist. Proper use is dependent on the specific task being evaluated. The situation may be such that the use of the written checklist, while accomplishing the elements of an “Aim”, would be either unsafe or impractical. In this case, a review of the checklist after the elements have been accomplished would be appropriate. Division of attention and proper visual scanning should be considered when using a checklist. It is acceptable for certain items to be verified from memory, in which case, a review of the checklist is expected after the elements have been accomplished.
Consideration will be given to unavoidable deviations from the published criteria due to weather, traffic or other situations beyond the reasonable control of the candidate. To avoid the need to compensate for such situations, tests should be conducted under normal conditions, whenever possible.
To correctly assess the validity of documents required on board and, from these documents, determine that the aircraft is airworthy for the proposed flight.
The candidate will determine the validity of all documents required on board the aeroplane and determine that required maintenance certifications have been completed.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s competency to:
Note: There is no requirement for the candidate to demonstrate knowledge of the Maintenance Control Manual of the FTU or the Approved Maintenance Schedule for the aircraft type used.
To understand the recommended operating procedures, performance capabilities and approved limitations of the aeroplane being used for the flight test.
The candidate will be required to demonstrate a practical knowledge of the approved operating procedures, performance capabilities and limitations of the aeroplane to be used on the flight test. Essential performance speeds will be quoted from memory. Other aeroplane performance data, such as static take-off power RPM , may be determined using the POH / AFM .
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s competency to:
To correctly complete two weight and balance calculations for the aeroplane used for the test, one for the planned simulated VFR cross-country flight prepared in Ex 23 A and the second calculation for the actual flight-test flight.
The candidate will be required, using actual aircraft weights, to apply the approved weight and balance data and complete accurate computations for an assigned practical load requirement that addresses all or most of the passenger and baggage stations applicable to the aeroplane for the simulated VFR cross-country flight, including take-off weight, landing weight and the zero fuel weight. If a loading graph or computer is available with the aeroplane, it may be utilized.
Knowledge of weight and balance graphs and envelopes, and the effect of various centers of gravity locations on the aeroplane flight characteristics will be demonstrated. Practical knowledge of how to correct a situation in which the center of gravity is out of limits or in which the gross weight has been exceeded as well as the competency to amend a calculation will be demonstrated.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s competency to:
To complete internal and external checks in accordance with the POH / AFM and demonstrate practical knowledge of the aircraft to determine that the aeroplane is in a safe condition for the intended flight.
The candidate will determine that the aeroplane is ready for the intended flight and, as can reasonably be determined by pre‑flight inspection, confirmed to be airworthy. The external and internal checks must cover at least all of the items specified by the manufacturer. All required equipment and documents will be located and safely stowed. Visual checks for fuel quantity, proper grade of fuel, fuel contamination and oil level will be carried out in accordance with the POH / AFM . If aircraft design precludes a visual check of fuel levels, fuel chits, fuel logs or other credible procedures may be used to confirm the amount of fuel actually on board. The candidate will state the available flight time at the intended cruising speed with the actual fuel on board.
After the candidate has completed the pre-flight inspection, questions relating to the flight test aircraft will be asked. The candidate should be able to explain what appropriate action would be taken if an unsatisfactory item were detected or described by the examiner during the pre-flight inspection. The candidate should demonstrate knowledge of the consequences if such items were undetected.
Note: The external and internal checks must at least cover all of the items specified by the manufacturer.
The candidate will conduct an oral passenger safety briefing. If the candidate omits the passenger safety briefing, the examiner will ask the candidate to provide a briefing.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To complete engine start, warm-up, run-up, correctness of control movements and systems checks in accordance with the checklists or placards provided by the aircraft manufacturer or owner, completing at least those items in the POH / AFM to determine that the aeroplane is airworthy and ready for flight.
The candidate is expected to use recommended procedures and good airmanship for engine starting, warm-up, run-up and checking of aeroplane systems and equipment in accordance with the checklists or placards provided by the aircraft manufacturer or owner, completing at least those items in the POH / AFM to determine that the aeroplane is airworthy and ready for flight. The candidate will take appropriate action with respect to unsatisfactory conditions encountered or describe the action to be taken in response to a simulated condition specified by the examiner.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To operate the installed aeroplane systems in accordance with the POH / AFM or manual supplements.
The candidate will be expected to demonstrate practical knowledge of the operation of systems installed in the aeroplane being used for the flight test. Use of these systems will be evaluated both on the ground and in the air.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to operate the aeroplane systems in accordance with the POH / AFM and explain the operation of two (2) of the following systems, as specified by the examiner:
To safely manoeuvre the aeroplane safely and avoid unnecessary interference with movement of other traffic.
The candidate will be expected to taxi the aircraft to and from the runway in use and as otherwise required during the test. Provided that traffic and other conditions permit, the candidate will taxi along taxiway centerlines, where they exist. The candidate will position the flight controls appropriately for wind conditions. During calm wind conditions, the examiner will specify a wind speed and direction in order to test this proficiency.
While taxiing, the candidate will confirm the proper functioning of the flight instruments. Should the candidate omit the flight instrument checks, the examiner will ask the candidate to complete these checks prior to the takeoff.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To safely perform a level and coordinated steep turn.
The candidate will be asked to execute a steep turn through 360º, with an angle of bank of 45º, using a pre-selected and prominent geographic point as a heading reference. The examiner will specify the airspeed, altitude and geographic reference point prior to entering the turn.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To establish the aircraft in slow flight on the backside of the power curve, where more power is needed to fly slower, as indicated by intermittent stall warnings or aerodynamic buffet, maintain flight control and to manoeuvre near that speed while preventing a stall, and to safely recover promptly and smoothly to normal flight on command of the examiner.
At an operationally safe altitude that would allow recovery from an inadvertent stall at or above 2,000 feet AGL or the minimum altitude recommended by the manufacturer, whichever is higher, the candidate will establish and manoeuvre the aircraft in slow flight within 5 to 10 knots of the stall speed. Airspeed may be increased slightly during a turn or in turbulent conditions. A slight increase in airspeed while turning or in turbulence is expected as the stall speed increases in these conditions.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
Note: Avoid prolonged periods in slow flight to prevent possible overheating of some engine components.
To recognize indications of the approach to arrival stalls, intentionally enter a full stall and safely execute a positive recovery to normal flight.
At an operationally safe altitude that allows recovery at or above 2,000 feet AGL , or the minimum height recommended by the manufacturer, whichever is higher, the stall manoeuvre will be entered from a power off situation. The examiner will specify the aeroplane configuration for the stall demonstration.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To recognize indications of the approach to departure or overshoot stalls with a high-power setting, but without excessively high nose-up attitudes and intentionally, execute a full stall and execute a positive recovery.
At an operationally safe altitude that allows recovery at or above 2,000 feet AGL or the minimum height recommended by the manufacturer, whichever is higher, one stall manoeuvre will be entered from a power-on situation. The examiner will specify the aeroplane configuration for the stall demonstration.
Note: Candidates should have the proficiency to recover from an unintentional incipient spin, if a spin develops as a result of any stall. Spin recovery training should have been covered in accordance with the Flight Training Manual and the Flight Instructor Guide.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To determine that the candidate can recognize a spiral dive and can execute a smooth and safe recovery to straight and level flight.
The examiner will initiate this manoeuvre from an over-banked steep turn or an incorrect spin entry. Control will be given to the candidate, when the spiral is established. On assuming control, the candidate will be expected to commence recovery immediately.
Recovery will be completed at a height specified by the manufacturer, or no less than 2,000 feet above ground, whichever is greater.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To demonstrate safe and effective slipping manoeuvres to increase a rate of descent or for crosswind landing conditions.
The candidate will be required to demonstrate a forward slip or a slipping turn to increase a rate of descent or a sideslip to correct for crosswind conditions during a landing. Slipping may be assessed during any of the landing approaches, including the precautionary or forced landing approaches.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
Note: Any significant skidding manoeuvre is unacceptable.
The candidate will demonstrate:
Where practicable, at least one of the takeoffs will be based on the previously calculated performance. If conditions permit, one of the takeoffs should be completed under crosswind conditions.
For the purpose of this exercise, the examiner may specify simulated conditions for the takeoff such as surface conditions, obstacles to be cleared and available runway length.
Note 1: The candidate must be able to explain the operational necessity for any variation from recommended speeds, e.g. gusty or crosswind conditions.
Note 2: Prior to the takeoff, in the interest of better cockpit co-ordination, the candidate will complete a crew briefing with the examiner on the intended departure procedure, takeoff considerations, noise abatement procedures and procedures to be used in the event of an actual engine failure during the takeoff and initial climb.
To safely conduct a normal takeoff using the correct procedure and technique for the actual or simulated wind conditions, runway surface and length, and assess the possibility of further conditions such as wind shear and wake turbulence.
The candidate will conduct a takeoff from a prepared surface and will apply the recommended techniques and procedures for a normal takeoff.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To safely take off from a short field and clear an obstacle, using the correct procedure and technique for the actual or simulated wind conditions, runway length and obstacles to be cleared, and assess the possibility of further conditions such as wind shear and wake turbulence.
For the purpose of this exercise, the examiner will specify simulated conditions, such as available runway length and obstacles to be cleared for the short-field takeoff. The candidate is expected to use the maximum performance takeoff technique recommended in the POH / AFM for the aeroplane type used.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
Note: The accuracy of lateral positioning on the runway during takeoffs and landings will be assessed in accordance with the following criteria:
To determine that the candidate can safely take off from an actual or simulated grass, gravel or rough surface using the correct procedure and technique for the actual or simulated wind conditions, runway surface and length, and can assess the possibility of further conditions such as wind shear and mechanical turbulence.
For the purpose of this exercise, the examiner will specify simulated conditions for the soft-field takeoff such as surface conditions, obstacles to be cleared and available runway length. The candidate is expected to use the soft-field takeoff technique described in the Flight Training Manual or as recommended in the POH / AFM for the aeroplane type used.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To operate the aeroplane in a safe manner in the vicinity of a controlled and/or an uncontrolled aerodrome.
The candidate will demonstrate correct circuit procedures, including departure and joining procedures for both controlled and uncontrolled aerodromes. When the location of the flight test does not allow demonstration of both uncontrolled and controlled aerodrome circuit procedures, the examiner will assess the candidate by questioning about the procedures that cannot be demonstrated. The competence to comply with MF/ATF procedures and ATC clearances or instructions while maintaining separation from other aircraft will be demonstrated.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
The candidate will demonstrate:
Assessment of approaches and landings will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to select the proper approach profile for the actual or simulated conditions. Unless strong crosswinds or gusts are present, all landings will be executed with full flap. Where practicable, one of the landings should be based on the previously calculated performance. If conditions and traffic permit, at least one of the landings should be completed under crosswind conditions. “Touch and Go” landings are not permitted for the evaluation of landings or takeoffs.
The candidate will be expected to use the correct procedure and technique for the actual wind conditions, landing surface and length or those specified by the examiner, to assess the possibility of further conditions such as wind shear and wake turbulence, and to execute overshoot procedures.
Note 1: The candidate must be able to explain the necessity for any variation from recommended speeds, e.g. gusty or crosswind conditions.
Note 2: For all approaches towards an actual or projected landing, a stabilized approach in accordance with the description of a “Stabilized Approach – VFR” on Page “i” is expected. Approaches that are unstable below 200 feet AGL are indicative of a major error.
To safely execute a normal approach and landing with a degree of accuracy as recommended by the POH / AFM or the techniques in the Flight Training Manual.
The candidate is expected to conduct a normal approach and landing using the correct recommended procedure and technique for the actual wind conditions, landing surface and length or those specified by the examiner, to assess the possibility of further conditions such as wind shear and wake turbulence.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To safely execute a short-field approach over an actual or simulated obstacle and land on a specified touchdown point with a degree of accuracy, using the technique recommended by the POH / AFM or to execute a soft-field landing using the techniques in the Flight Training Manual.
For the short or soft-field approach and landing, the examiner will clearly specify the simulated surface conditions, obstacles on approach, landing threshold and length of surface available to the candidate. Should the candidate realize, prior to the landing flare, that a short-field landing could not be achieved in the intended touchdown zone; an overshoot for a second attempt is acceptable.
For soft-field landings, the candidate is expected to use the technique described in the Flight Training Manual and maximum performance (short-field) landings will be executed as recommended in the POH / AFM for the aeroplane type used.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
Note: Abrupt decent after clearing an obstacle will be assessed as a “2” or less. (“Chop and Drop” is not stable.)
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To safely execute an overshoot as recommended by the POH / AFM or the technique described in the Flight Training Manual.
The overshoot will be carried out on command of the examiner or, if necessary may be initiated by the candidate, and will be assessed from any of the landing approaches, the forced landing or precautionary landing.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To safely evaluate an unfamiliar aerodrome or landing area as a prospective place to land.
The examiner will outline a scenario requiring a landing. Scenarios may include a landing at an aerodrome of unknown condition or an off-field landing due to a deteriorating condition. The candidate must select a suitable landing area, determine the landing path, determine the appropriate precautionary procedure to be used and must use a planned procedure to fly an accurate approach. While an actual landing may not be required, the final approach flown should be such that a successful landing could have been accomplished in the pre-selected touchdown zone.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
Note: The candidate must communicate the intended height for the low-level inspection and explain the operational necessity for any variation from recommended speeds, such as for gusty or crosswind conditions.
To plan, manage and safely carry out a successful approach in the event of an engine failure to a selected touchdown zone in the first 1/3 of a suitable landing area.
Engine failure will be simulated from 3,000 feet AGL without advance warning by the examiner by closing the throttle to idle or by bringing the power lever to flight idle and declaring “Simulated Engine Failure”. While accomplishing the required emergency procedures, the candidate will be expected to use good decision-making and demonstrate the competence to perform a safe gliding approach to a suitable landing area so that a safe landing could be made if the approach were continued to the ground. Unless the intent is to execute an actual landing on a suitable surface, an overshoot will be carried out when requested by the examiner at an operationally safe height above ground.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
Note 1: An approach that would have resulted in touching down more than 1,000 feet beyond the end of the selected touchdown zone in the first 1/3 of the landing area will be considered a major error and assessed with a mark of “2” or less.
Note 2: After initially establishing the recommended glide speed, the candidate may vary the airspeed and flight profile, as required to achieve a successful and safe approach, without exceeding any aircraft limitations.
Note 3: A change of field is acceptable from an altitude or point in the approach where a landing could still have been made on the originally chosen landing site.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
Note: The candidate is expected to clear the engine at appropriate intervals during the descent. In very cold conditions, it is acceptable for the candidate to configure the aeroplane by lowering some flap and using some residual power to achieve a normal power-off gliding descent angle and airspeed.
To efficiently plan a VFR cross-country flight and demonstrate practical knowledge by explaining elements related to cross-country flight planning.
The candidate will plan a VFR cross-country flight, including one intermediate stop, to an assigned destination at least 2 hours cruising range distance in the aeroplane being used for the flight test.
The cross-country flight can be assigned in advance and the candidate can make preliminary preparations such as route selection, paper chart preparation, determination of tracks, distances, selection of possible alternates and initial navigational log entries before the flight test.
Flight planning will be completed based on real-time weather and a loading scenario with all or most passenger seats occupied and a significant baggage load, as specified by the examiner.
Software-generated flight planning is acceptable, but the candidate must be able to explain some of the key elements of flight planning such as estimated time enroute, fuel requirements, contingencies, etc.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s competency to:
To safely execute an efficient departure for the simulated cross-country flight planned in Ex. 23A.
When requested by the examiner, the candidate will be expected to depart on the cross country flight as planned.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To effectively apply systematic VFR navigation techniques in order to ensure that arrival at the destination is predictable.
After setting heading, the flight will continue until the candidate, using systematic navigation techniques, establishes, confirms or revises, as required, the heading and timing required to fly to the first turning point or destination of the planned simulated VFR cross-country flight.
Note: Radio navigation aids or GPS are not to be used during the execution of this item.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To safely carry out a diversion to a suitable alternate destination using mental in-flight planning, dead reckoning, map reading and pilotage.
In response to a scenario presented by the examiner, the candidate will demonstrate the proficiency to select a suitable alternate destination that is within the actual or a simulated fuel range of the aeroplane. The candidate will carry out a diversion towards the selected destination, or alternatively in the interest of flight test efficiency, towards another destination selected by the examiner. Rulers, notched pencils, protractors, devices such as ForeFlight, computers or radio navigation aids will not be used for this item.
The candidate is expected to initiate the diversion without undue delay by quickly determining a track to follow, an approximate heading and an approximate time enroute to avoid the need to loiter in a holding pattern. (This will require extensive ground training and practice to improve the candidate’s competency to quickly determine a track to follow, an approximate heading and an approximate time enroute in order to avoid the need to loiter in a holding pattern.)
The examiner will specify an initial altitude to fly. When practicable, a part or all of the diversion should be conducted at a height of between 500 and 1000 feet above ground or at the minimum safe altitude, whichever is higher. The candidate may change altitudes to suit the topography or the scenario and is expected to communicate intentional altitude changes to the examiner. Estimated enroute and arrival times may be approximate but with a reasonable degree of accuracy.
The examiner will specify an initial altitude to fly. When practicable, a part or all of the diversion should be conducted at a height of between 500 and 1000 feet above ground or at the minimum safe altitude, if it is higher. The candidate may change altitudes to suit the topography or the scenario and is expected to communicate intentional altitude changes to the examiner. Estimated enroute and arrival times may be approximate but with a reasonable degree of accuracy.
The examiner will assess the candidate’s proficiency to proceed toward an alternate destination by using dead- reckoning or by following a series of geographic features such as roads, railways or rivers, where they are available. The diversion will be continued until at least the stage where the aeroplane is established on the proposed track to the alternate or is following a suitable geographic feature; in a manner demonstrating that arrival at the destination is predictable.
Note: Radio navigation aids or GPS are not to be used during the execution of this item. A paper VNC chart is to be used.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to
Note: This exercise will require a suitable view-limiting device.
To safely control and manoeuvre the aeroplane solely by reference to available flight instruments.
The candidate will be required to fly the aeroplane solely by reference to available flight instruments. The candidate will be asked to:
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to control and manoeuvre the airplane within:
To safely and promptly recover from an abnormal attitude using only the available flight instruments.
The examiner will take control and fly the aeroplane into an unusual attitude, either nose-up or nose-down with bank, then transfer control to the candidate and call for recovery. Using available flight instruments, the candidate is expected to promptly and smoothly recover to straight and level flight within the aeroplane’s limitations.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
To react promptly and correctly to actual or simulated emergencies and system or equipment malfunctions by carrying out vital action checks by memory and following up with the appropriate checklist. Some checks may be actioned by reference to the appropriate checklist.
The candidate will demonstrate adequate knowledge of the emergency procedures for the installed systems, subsystems and devices. The candidate is expected to complete any applicable vital actions by memory and follow up by consulting the appropriate emergency checklist.
Assessment may be carried out during any portion of the flight test. One of the emergencies should be simulated while airborne.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to analyze a situation, take appropriate action and follow appropriate memory items, emergency checklists items and/or procedures for any two (2) of the following simulated emergencies/malfunctions, as specified by the examiner:
It is the sole responsibility of the examiner to determine if aeroplane performance, weather conditions and other factors permit the safe conduct of an emergency procedure in flight or on the ground with the engine running. Some of the items may be tested on the ground with the engine shut down.
To communicate with Air Traffic Control ( ATC ) facilities in clear and understandable English or French, as appropriate to the location; to maintain a “listening watch” on the appropriate frequency applicable to the airspace and demonstrate how to obtain assistance from those facilities to permit the safe and efficient conduct of a flight.
The candidate will demonstrate or explain the correct procedures for the use of radio communication equipment available on board the aircraft. The candidate must demonstrate the proficiency to obtain information relevant to the flight and to obtain, respond to and act upon ATC clearances and instructions.
Where suitable air traffic services are not available, the examiner may play the role of air traffic services.
Assessment will be based on the candidate’s proficiency to:
Instructors prepare their students for the flight test with every training trip. They do this by helping the student master all the flight exercises, but they also let the student take more and more responsibility for decision-making with each lesson, so the student will be fully ready to make all the decisions during the flight test.
Here are some tips on how to pass the flight test:
Name of Candidate (Print)